This blog demonstrates how important it is to examine the origin of English words when studying the Bible.
There are many verses in Scripture that have either been poorly, and/or incorrectly translated, and/or are hard to understand.
Let me demonstrate by examining Gal 2:14.
The KJV reads as follows :
Gal 2:14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?
Before I explain the problems with Gal 2:14, I need to address the context of the proceeding few verses (v11-14).
There Paul confronted Peter about returning to the “Jews religion”, mentioned in Gal 1:13-14. Paul’s condemnation of Peter has to do with believing that men are bound by the oral law of the “Jews' religion”. Their conflict was over Peter not fellowshipping with the believing Gentiles, when those of the “Jews' religion” were present, because they taught that fellowshipping with unsaved Gentiles was sinful – it definitely was not over, keeping or not keeping YHWH’s Torah. Evidence for this is that there is no mention of Torah, anywhere in the exchange between these two men – none.
If Paul didn't think the Gentiles should be taught to follow Torah, then I have a few questions for people to answer :
Q1: If Paul didn't think the Gentiles should be taught to follow Torah, then how do you explain this :
~ why did he teach them in assemblies that gathered every sabbath ?
~ Why did he have Timothy circumcised in Acts 16, if he didn't believe that the Gentiles should be taught to keep Torah?
~Why did he take a vow, and shave his head to prove to the Jews that he walked in obedience to Torah?
~ Why did he still keep the feasts, if keeping the feasts was just a “Jewish” thing?
Q2: Wouldn’t Paul have been a hypocrite for confronting Peter about doing “Jewish” things, & then he, Paul, then did “Jewish” things?
There was a huge difference between what Peter was doing, & what he did. Peter was following the "oral law" of men, while keeping the feasts, is obeying Torah.
Q3: Why did Paul, in Eph 2:10, talk about being created in Messiah Yahushua, to walk in “good works” which YHWH ordained - a clear reference to Torah ?
Q4: If Paul thinks that Torah is not to be followed, why did he say in Rom 3:2, that the Jews have a great advantage?
Clearly, Paul didn’t advocate the non-keeping of YHWH’s Torah, in Gal 2, & elsewhere.
Now back to our study verse, Gal 2:14.
If we look at this verse, we see that, in the KJV, the English words, “Jew” is written once, & “Jews” is written, twice. What we don’t see in English, is that there are three different Greek words that are translated as “Jew”, & “Jews”, twice. They are in order, G2453, Ioudaios, meaning a Judaean, one belonging to Judah, G2452, Ioudaikos, meaning, after the manner of the Jews, including keeping the traditions of the elders, & G2450, Ioudaizo, meaning to judaize, or imitate the Jews.
If I now translate this verse, & insert the meanings of these three words, together with three others, that are not explained, we get :
Gal 2:14 But when I saw that they (those of the Jewish religion), walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel (of Messiah Yahushua), I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, (one belonging to Judah), livest after the manner of Gentiles, (non-Jews), and not as do the Jews, (after the manner of the Jews, including keeping the traditions of the elders), why compellest thou the Gentiles (non-Jews), to live as do the Jews (to judaize, or imitate the Jews)?
Now, if we apply this excellent Bible Study strategy, isn’t the meaning of what Paul was writing, much clearer, & less open to misunderstanding ? Can you now see why it is so important to examine the origin of the English words used in Bible Translations ?
Another example can be found in Exod 12:43-49 which I have copied below. It gives details of who can participate in the original Passover event, but in English, it is very confusing, & unclear who they are.
The KJV in v43, uses the word “stranger”, in v44, it uses the phrase, “every man’s servant”, in v45, it uses the terms, “foreigner” & “hired servant”, & in verses 48 & 49, it again uses, “stranger”. Can you see the problem ? Based on this English translation, can you know whom YHWH indicates can participate in His Passover ?
Exo 12:43 And YHWH said unto Moses and Aaron, This is the ordinance of the passover: There shall no stranger eat thereof:
Exo 12:44 But every man's servant that is bought for money, when thou hast circumcised him, then shall he eat thereof.
Exo 12:45 A foreigner and an hired servant shall not eat thereof.
Exo 12:46 In one house shall it be eaten; thou shalt not carry forth ought of the flesh abroad out of the house; neither shall ye break a bone thereof.
Exo 12:47 All the congregation of Israel shall keep it.
Exo 12:48 And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to YHWH, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.
Exo 12:49 One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you.
If we check the Hebrew, it becomes much clearer.
In v43, the Hebrew word translated as “stranger” is H1616, ger, meaning an apostate Israelite, or a non-Israelite, in v44, the meaning of “every man’s servant” is clearly defined in the verse – he is a bought male servant who has been circumcised, & therefore has become an Israelite, in v45, “a foreigner” is the Hebrew word, H8453, toshab, meaning a sojourner living with the Israelites, & a “hired servant” is someone who is hired to do a task. In verses 48 & 49, the stranger, the ger, is described as one who sojourns with you. In this case, this person is one who is converting to, or changing citizenship, to become an Israelite. (Remember Ruth, the daughter-in-law of Naomi, did this in Ruth 1:16).
So, if I now translate this verse, & insert the meanings of these words, we get :
Exo 12:43 And YHWH said unto Moses and Aaron, This is the ordinance of the passover: There shall no stranger (no apostate Israelite, or non-Israelite), eat thereof:
Exo 12:44 But every man's servant that is bought for money, when thou hast circumcised him, then shall he eat thereof.
Exo 12:45 A foreigner (a sojourner living with the Israelites), and an hired servant shall not eat thereof.
Exo 12:46 In one house shall it be eaten; thou shalt not carry forth ought of the flesh abroad out of the house; neither shall ye break a bone thereof.
Exo 12:47 All the congregation of Israel shall keep it.
Exo 12:48 And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, (a person who is converting to, or changing citizenship, to become an Israelite) and will keep the passover to YHWH, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.
Exo 12:49 One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you (the person who is converting to, or changing citizenship to become an Israelite).
Again, if we apply this excellent Bible Study strategy, isn’t the meaning of who can participate in YHWH’s Passover, much clearer, & less open to misunderstanding ? Can you see why it is so important to examine the origin of the English words used in Bible Translations ?